My understanding is that the significance of the lag-1 autocorrelation is
used as the criterion for whether or not to estimate the sample size. Are
subsequent significant autocorrelations used for estimating the
equivalent sample size, or only lag-1 (i.e the input data is assumed to
be an AR(1) process)?
Will
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Received on Wed Oct 18 2006 - 14:31:44 MDT
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